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Просмотр полной версии : Please - explain, whether there is a precise difference between the reasons of an abortion...



lilja
22.06.2004, 19:58
Please - explain, whether there is a precise difference between the reasons of the abortion which has begun after pregnancy has ceased to develop and the abortion which has begun after threat, any vydeleny, that is at normally developing pregnancy? Whether the reason of not developing pregnancy - the raised or increased man's hormones is possible or probable? Simply I meet all time in the text, that " threat of an abortion " in this case is possible or probable. It unless the same with not developing? What it is possible to assume, if during pregnancy man's hormones are raised or increased and I accepted Dexamethazonum, and pregnancy has all the same ceased to develop and the abortion has occured or happened? Except for infections? In advance thanks!

Rabaev G.G.
23.06.2004, 13:04
Inspection and conducting the expert all duration of gestation is necessary.

lilja
24.06.2004, 14:40
Mister Rabaev GG, you, as always, were limited to the formal reply.
I did not ask me to treat not seeing, not hearing, not surveying and t. Item I Understand, that it is necessary to go to the doctor. Internally.
I hoped to receive free-of-charge (in it or this business?!) the answer to simple unequivocal questions (except for the last, he, I recognize, it is incorrect, excuse). Instead of it or this has received a banal maxim. You the most unusable interactive doctor,

child
25.06.2004, 18:33
I not the doctor. But I advise here to ask questions in section "pregnancy", there responds Pasenjuk, and responds it is explanatory or sensible enough. And on a site in-that immunologyes Guzov-too neploho-cir. Moscow time. ru or doctor Maljarskaja (on medetsine 2000) - responds at once. Natasha is better to write to her on henrih@ints. ru address